After reading interesting points in this thread:
and on the main page (understanding-islam.com), I have got the impression that polygamy was not encouraged or commanded for the sake of men's desire or lust, it was merely a way of helping out orphans and widows after the battle of Uhud where many men were lost.
Considering these points, that polygamy was infact not encouraged but rather a need for the construction of society to maintain the wellfare of orphans and widows, I wonder - where is the proof for this?
Except the obvious context, of course.
When you say to someone that surah 4:3 is referring to taking care of the orphans, they would provide you with a hadith where it says it is not referring to taking care of them, rather about MARRYING them. And thus, interpreting the verse like this; ("if you cant be fair (in marriage to the orphans") then marry other women, two, three or four...and only in certain, rare circumstances, should one marry only one). As if polygamy is preferred and monogamy is not, despite all the references that Allah swt created human from a single soul and created his partner (not partners) for him.
Also people like to mention, if it is allowed to marry the first one out of lust, then why would it not be permissible to do so for the 2nd, 3rd and 4th time? Also, they like to mention that "all" of the sahaba practiced polygamy, and not in the context of taking care of orphans or widows.
How does one argue with that?