jesus in genesis?

[theman09]

http://m.youtube.com/watch?v=VAHEuqXT5yQ. repentance in islam

[theman09]

http://www.loonwatch.com/2013/05/net...-islamophobia/


jewish tribes killing each other.

[theman09]

I will not hear you NO MATTER HOW MANY‘Prayers’You say,




Reason given*



because your hands are covered with blood!*




Wash, purify yourselves, remove the badness of your deeds from before My eyes, stop doing wrong!*Learn to do*right, seek justice, protect victims, treat orphans justly, support the claims of widows




Notice that The reason given is hands covered with blood?God wil Hide his eyes and not hear ….because they have bloody hands.


God is allergic to blood.

"I am fed up with olah-offerings of rams and the offals of fattened calves, and the blood of oxen, lambs and goats does not give Me pleasure"


why would a diety who is FED up of offerings and TAKES no pleasure from blood, want to take pleasure from bloody cross and bloody cup which contains blood of jesus?




Your cross has blood on it and you drink blood...

“…What shall I approach Adonai and bow myself before the Supreme God with? Should I approach Him with olah-sacrifices or calves in their first year? Will Adonai be pleased by thousands of rams, or tens of thousands of rivers of oil?

*Should I give my own first-born child [in payment] for my rebellion or the fruit of my own body [in payment] for my soul’s errors?

Mankind, He has already told you what is ‘good’, what it is that Adonai wants of you – only to act justly, to love kindness, and to walk modestly with your God” (Michah 6:6-8).

“What use to Me is the huge number of your sacrifices?”




If the guy wasnt a hypocrite should he have sacrificed his son for his sin?

One can say the same for faith and good deeds .the question is why did the verse end with learning to do right deeds? Why didnt it tell the jews to hang knives around their knecks and depend on blood? If they depend on blood then how are they to wash their hands which were covered in blood sacrifice?


The verses does not mention hypocrisy, rather the verses mention that God has had enough of the sacrifices, that he has had enough of the offerings.

[theman09]

clearly animal blood offerings arent fixing things between yhwh and the jews so yhwh in te beginning of te verse says he is fed up/had enough of sacrifices. then he mentions a list of different sacrificed flesh which give him no pleasure. now that is a lot of blood and flesh. now just think of the ripping of jesus's flesh and then hanging his body on a cross, what pleasure does god get when viewing a cross which was used for bodies nailed to it?

it is the evangelists claim that their god cooled down when his created flesh was murdered on a cross, but why would yhwh get pleasure out of this? didnt he see enough flesh sacrifice and got sick of it?

[theman09]

http://edward-t-babinski.blogspot.co.uk/

[theman09]

“Behold My Servant”

My servant

Some reasons why Jesus is not the servant:

The phrase, “My servant,” presents a problem for the trinitarian doctrine: servant and master are two separate entities.
A servant by definition is always in an inferior position to his master.
John’s Jesus acknowledges: “A slave is not greater than his master, neither one who is sent greater than the one who sent him” (John 13:16). The sending of Jesus would have taken place while the trinity trio supposedly were all equal. If Jesus is an incarnate member of a coequal triune deity he could not become less than equal to the other two parts and still be coequal and of one essence with them (cf. Philippians 2:5-11).
Moreover, when is Jesus ever called directly “My servant”? In Matthew 12:18 the phrase appears as part of a proof text, not as an appellative.
Can the Messiah be called My servant?

During the Messianic Era the promised king from David’s line will be placed over God’s flock (Ezekiel 34:23-31). In that day, God the ultimate savior of his people will establish His covenant of peace. How is the Davidic prince, the Messiah, referred to during the messianic reign? God calls him My servant—not My equal.
God never called Jesus His servant, during Jesus’ lifetime.
Is My servant a title to be applied to Jesus by God during the supposed second coming of Jesus when he will manifest himself not as a servant but as king of Israel and as one-third of the triune deity of Christianity.
In the Ezekiel passage the Messiah of Israel is called God’s servant, not his equal. What that tells us is that Jesus is not the Messiah—not then, not now, not ever.
The supposed “two natures of Christ”

Jesus is the god that never was. Some Christians differentiate between what is called “the two natures of Christ.”

It is claimed that Jesus was fully God and fully man at the same time, but mysteriously interwoven yet separate. Thus, it is said, Jesus could be knowledgeable about some things and ignorant about others.
Jesus’ statement that “A slave is not greater than his master, neither one who is sent greater than the one who sent him” refutes consideration of this two nature doctrine. This statement says that a slave is of lower status than his master.
Anyone sent on a mission by another person is of inferior status. In the case of Jesus, this would make his supposed supernatural nature inferior to that of God the Father even before becoming incarnate and even if done voluntarily. It would mean that there was a period of time when the coequality of the triune deity was reduced to a dyad.
This state of inequality continues presently in that Jesus supposedly mediates between God the Father and mankind (1 Timothy 2:5, Hebrew 9:24), but it is God the Father who makes the final judgment not the “mediator.”


Learning obedience

Did the author of Hebrews have Isaiah 53 in mind when he said Jesus “learned obedience from the things which he suffered” (Hebrews 5:8)?

Why did Jesus have to learn to be obedient if he is God?
Whom did he have to obey?
Can equals in any triune deity exercise dominance, one over the other?
How can God’s servant be none other than one-third of Himself. Those who claim a preexistent supernatural being was incarnate in the form of Jesus cannot escape the question:
Why did this incarnate being have to learn to be obedient through suffering if in both his humanity and divinity he was sinless to begin with and therefore was already obedient to God?


http://messiahtruth.yuku.com/topic/4...l#.UbX3zvnql0g

[theman09]

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[theman09]

http://xa.yimg.com/kq/groups/5614774...ARAMETER_VALUE