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Tahira
2nd November 2003, 13:33
assalaamo-alaikum, i have question that has been raised in relation to Iblees. The question is that was Iblees,in fact ALWAYS a shaytaan, even before Allah asked him to bow down before Hazrat Adam, or was he simply a Jinn alone because evil only came into 'existence'after this event?

Yahya Sulaiman
3rd November 2003, 02:36
That's a good question. I think that if he was allowed in the court of angels in heaven, he was probably uncorrupt at the time.

I am Yahya, formerly Surah, formerly American Deist.

Ronnie
3rd November 2003, 04:08
Salam,

The very fact that he was created with freewill made him and others like him susceptible to error. He did not transgress until God created Adam and asked Iblis to prostrate to him. His pride and arrogance sent him "down" his doomed path. In a way you can see this as a test which he failed, however this is only my opinion. Here's a link that may help

http://www.understanding-islam.com/related/text.asp?type=question&qid=291#_ftn1

mpriest
3rd November 2003, 05:12
salaam

I think that iblis became shaitan when his evils were
no longer confined to himself,but influenced others.

matthew missionary priest

faiz
3rd November 2003, 16:36
u can read the quran about iblees and there is a good book called tables iblees from ibn ul jawzee!