View Full Version : Regarding [60:10] and [60:12]
20th January 2012, 21:02
In verse [60:10] and also in [60:12], the verb (Fi'l) "Ja-a" is masculine, but the doer (Fa'il) "Al-mu'minatu" is Feminine.
What is the reason for such gender mismatch ? Is there a grammatical or rhetorical reason for this anomaly ?
21st January 2012, 09:01
Per my Arabic teacher :
1) Since feminine is plural, either masculine or feminine verb can be used - if it was singular, only feminine verb would be used
2) Since the masculine pronoun kum/ka comes in between the verb and the doer, it causes the verb to be feminine. The usual structure is verb, then doer, then maf'ul (the pronoun here).
Though I suppose there could be some rhetorical reasoning behind it too..
21st January 2012, 18:03
Hmm.. Interesting. I was not aware of this grammatical rule.
Thank you very much.
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